← SciSim / Mathematics

Taylor & Maclaurin Series

Approximate any smooth function by polynomials — using only its derivatives at one point.
🎓 Tier: HSC → Standard Undergraduate

📊 Section 1 — Interactive Simulation

Pick a function $f$ and an expansion point $a$. Slide the order $N$ — watch the Taylor polynomial $T_N(x) = \sum_{k=0}^N \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k$ wrap tighter and tighter around $f$. The error region shows where the partial sum diverges from $f$.

f(x) plot
f(x*) at probe
Tₙ(x*) at probe
|f − Tₙ| at x*
order N
k-th coefficient cₙ
expansion point a
distance |x* − a|
Lagrange bound

Animation

Function Preset

Parameters

Display Options

Tips

• Press ▶ Play to grow $N$ — see how the polynomial wraps further.
• Try 1/(1−x) with $a=0$: it diverges at $x=1$ (radius = 1).
• Try e^(−1/x²): every Maclaurin coefficient is 0, so $T_N \equiv 0$ but $f \neq 0$ — Taylor series can fail to represent the function!

🪜 Section 2 — The Idea, Step by Step

From "guess the road ahead" all the way to the Lagrange remainder — one gentle climb, no jumps.

Start Here — the everyday picture

Glance at your speedometer while walking. Knowing where you are and how fast you're going right now, you can already guess where you'll be a second from now — without watching the whole road. Taylor's idea is exactly this: if you know everything about a curve at one single point — its height, its slope, how that slope is bending, and so on — you can rebuild the whole curve nearby using nothing fancier than a polynomial. The more local detail you feed in, the further out your guess stays trustworthy.

Build · the first two guesses
The point you stand on is the expansion point $a$. The crudest guess is a flat line at the curve's height there: $T_0(x) = f(a)$. Add the slope and you get the tangent line, $T_1(x) = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a)$ — the "linear approximation" you may already know from physics. Worked number: for $f(x)=e^x$ at $a=0$ we have $f(0)=1$ and $f'(0)=1$, so $T_1(x)=1+x$. Then $e^{0.1}\approx 1.1$ versus the true $1.10517\ldots$ — off by only about $0.005$. Match the curvature too and the parabola $T_2$ does even better.
Deepen · matching one more derivative each time
Every extra derivative you match buys one more power of $(x-a)$. The full Taylor polynomial collects them all: $$T_N(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{N} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}\,(x-a)^k,$$ where the $k!$ in each denominator is exactly what tames the fast-growing derivatives. How wrong you can be is pinned down by the Lagrange remainder $R_N(x) = \dfrac{f^{(N+1)}(\xi)}{(N+1)!}(x-a)^{N+1}$: that $(x-a)^{N+1}$ factor is the whole story — the fit is razor-sharp right at $a$ and frays the further you wander. In the sim above, the $N$ slider sets how many derivatives you match, $a$ slides the point you build from, and $x^*$ marks where the true $f$ and your polynomial are compared.

Try This in the Sim Above

1 · Watch it wrap. Pick $e^x$ and drag $N$ from $0$ upward — the orange polynomial hugs the blue curve over a wider and wider stretch.

2 · Hit the wall. Pick $1/(1-x)$ with $a=0$ and slide $x^*$ past $1$: the polynomial flies off no matter how large $N$ gets. You've crossed the radius of convergence $R=1$.

3 · See it fail. Pick $e^{-1/x^2}$: every coefficient is $0$, so $T_N$ stays pinned flat on the axis while the real function lifts away — a perfectly smooth function whose Taylor series refuses to rebuild it.

📐 Section 3 — Taylor's Theorem & Derivation

From the definition to the Lagrange remainder.

Taylor Polynomial & Series

If $f$ has $N+1$ continuous derivatives near $a$, the Taylor polynomial of order $N$ at $a$ is $$T_N(x) \;=\; \sum_{k=0}^{N} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}\,(x-a)^k = f(a) + f'(a)(x-a) + \frac{f''(a)}{2!}(x-a)^2 + \cdots + \frac{f^{(N)}(a)}{N!}(x-a)^N.$$ The Maclaurin series is the special case $a=0$. The Taylor series is the limit: $$f(x) \overset{?}{=} \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}\,(x-a)^k.$$ Equality holds when the remainder $R_N(x) = f(x) - T_N(x) \to 0$ as $N\to\infty$.

Taylor's Theorem (Lagrange Remainder)

If $f$ is $(N+1)$-times differentiable on the interval between $a$ and $x$, there exists $\xi$ strictly between $a$ and $x$ such that $$R_N(x) \;=\; f(x) - T_N(x) \;=\; \frac{f^{(N+1)}(\xi)}{(N+1)!}\,(x-a)^{N+1}.$$

In particular, if $\abs{f^{(N+1)}}\le M$ on $[a,x]$, then $\abs{R_N(x)} \le \dfrac{M}{(N+1)!}\abs{x-a}^{N+1}$ — the practical error bound.

Symbol Table

SymbolMeaningType
$f$ Function being approximated $(N+1)$-times differentiable near $a$
$a$ Expansion point — center of approximationReal
$f^{(k)}(a)$ $k$-th derivative of $f$ at $a$ Real, $f^{(0)}=f$
$T_N(x)$ Taylor polynomial of order $N$ at $a$ Polynomial in $x$, degree $\le N$
$c_k$ Taylor coefficient $f^{(k)}(a)/k!$ Real
$R_N(x)$ Remainder: $f(x) - T_N(x)$ Real, $\to 0$ inside radius of convergence
$R$ Radius of convergence $R \in [0,\infty]$, distance to nearest singularity in $\C$
$\xi$ Mean-value point in Lagrange remainder Strictly between $a$ and $x$

Derivation — Why $c_k = f^{(k)}(a)/k!$?

Step 1 · Suppose $f$ has a power series at $a$
Assume $f(x) = c_0 + c_1(x-a) + c_2(x-a)^2 + c_3(x-a)^3 + \cdots$ converges in some interval around $a$. The goal: solve for the $c_k$'s in terms of $f$.
Step 2 · Plug in $x=a$ to recover $c_0$
All terms with $(x-a)^k$ for $k \geq 1$ vanish: $f(a) = c_0$. So $c_0 = f(a)$.
Step 3 · Differentiate and plug in $x=a$ for $c_1$
$f'(x) = c_1 + 2c_2(x-a) + 3c_3(x-a)^2 + \cdots$. At $x=a$: $f'(a) = c_1$, so $c_1 = f'(a)$.
Step 4 · Differentiate twice for $c_2$
$f''(x) = 2 c_2 + 6 c_3(x-a) + 12 c_4 (x-a)^2 + \cdots = 2!\,c_2 + 3!\,c_3(x-a) + \cdots$. At $x=a$: $f''(a) = 2!\,c_2$, so $c_2 = f''(a)/2!$.
Step 5 · General coefficient — pattern
Differentiate $k$ times and set $x=a$: every term except the $k$-th vanishes, and the $k$-th becomes $k!\,c_k$. So $f^{(k)}(a) = k!\,c_k$, giving $\boxed{c_k = \dfrac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}.}$
Step 6 · Lagrange remainder via repeated integration by parts
Apply the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus and integrate by parts $N$ times: $f(x) - f(a) = \int_a^x f'(t)\,dt = (x-a)f'(a) + \int_a^x (x-t)f''(t)\,dt$, and continuing: $f(x) = T_N(x) + \dfrac{1}{N!}\int_a^x (x-t)^N f^{(N+1)}(t)\,dt$. By the integral mean-value theorem, this equals $\dfrac{f^{(N+1)}(\xi)}{(N+1)!}(x-a)^{N+1}$ for some $\xi$ between $a$ and $x$.
Step 7 · When does $T_N \to f$?
$T_N(x) \to f(x)$ iff $R_N(x) \to 0$. Sufficient condition: $\abs{f^{(N+1)}(\xi)}/(N+1)! \to 0$ on the interval. For $e^x$: derivatives bounded by $e^{|x|}$, factorial dominates, $R_N \to 0$ everywhere — radius is infinity. For $1/(1-x)$ at $a=0$: derivatives blow up, radius is exactly 1.

Simulation ↔ Symbol Mapping

slider N order of the Taylor polynomial $T_N$
slider a expansion point — series is centered at $a$
slider x* probe — point at which to compare $f(x^*)$ vs $T_N(x^*)$
readout cₙ $N$-th Taylor coefficient $f^{(N)}(a)/N!$
readout |f − Tₙ| actual remainder magnitude at $x^*$
readout Lagrange bound$M\abs{x^*-a}^{N+1}/(N+1)!$ where $M = \sup\abs{f^{(N+1)}}$ on $[a, x^*]$
graph Error vs N $\log\abs{R_N(x^*)}$ vs $N$ — for entire functions, super-exponential decay
graph radius visualize convergence radius; outside it, $T_N(x)$ diverges as $N\to\infty$

Worked Example — Maclaurin Series of $\sin(x)$, $\cos(x)$, $e^x$

$e^x$ at $a=0$: all derivatives are $e^0 = 1$, so $c_k = 1/k!$. Thus $e^x = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{x^k}{k!} = 1 + x + \dfrac{x^2}{2!} + \dfrac{x^3}{3!} + \cdots$. Radius $R = \infty$.

$\sin(x)$ at $a=0$: derivatives cycle $\sin\to\cos\to-\sin\to-\cos\to\sin\to\cdots$, so $f^{(k)}(0) = 0, 1, 0, -1, 0, 1, \ldots$. Result: $\sin x = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^k x^{2k+1}}{(2k+1)!} = x - \dfrac{x^3}{3!} + \dfrac{x^5}{5!} - \cdots$. $R = \infty$.

$\cos(x)$ at $a=0$: similarly, $\cos x = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^k x^{2k}}{(2k)!} = 1 - \dfrac{x^2}{2!} + \dfrac{x^4}{4!} - \cdots$. $R = \infty$.

Numerical check: $\sin(0.5)$ true value $0.479425539\ldots$. $T_5(0.5) = 0.5 - 0.5^3/6 + 0.5^5/120 = 0.5 - 0.020833\ldots + 0.000260\ldots = 0.479427\ldots$. Error $\approx 1.5\times 10^{-6}$ — Lagrange bound: $\abs{x}^7/7! = 0.5^7/5040 \approx 1.55\times 10^{-6}$. Matches!

Famous identity: Combine these to get $e^{ix} = \cos x + i \sin x$ (Euler) by checking series coefficients term-by-term. $\boxed{e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0.}$

Reference: Stewart, J. — Calculus, 8th ed., Ch. 11 §11.10 "Taylor and Maclaurin Series"; Spivak, M. — Calculus, 4th ed., Ch. 24 (Taylor's theorem with full rigor); Apostol, T. — Calculus, Vol. 1, §7.7–§7.8; Rudin, W. — Principles of Mathematical Analysis, 3rd ed., Theorem 5.15 (Taylor's theorem on $\R$); Bromwich, T. — An Introduction to the Theory of Infinite Series, classical treatment.

❓ Section 4 — Frequently Asked Questions

🧮Conceptual What's the difference between a Taylor polynomial and a Taylor series?

A Taylor polynomial $T_N(x)$ is finite — a polynomial of degree $\leq N$. It always exists for any $N$ when $f$ is $N$-times differentiable, and it's an approximation: $f(x) = T_N(x) + R_N(x)$, with the remainder $R_N$ measurable but generally nonzero. The Taylor series is the infinite sum $\sum_{k=0}^\infty f^{(k)}(a)(x-a)^k/k!$ — it's a limit object that may or may not converge, and even if it converges, may not equal $f$ (see the bump-function example). So: polynomial = approximation tool with explicit error, series = formal infinite object that's only useful when it converges to $f$.

Key takeaway: Taylor polynomials always exist; Taylor series may diverge or converge to the wrong function.
🔬Simulation What does "Term-by-term Build-up" mode show?

It animates how each new term $\dfrac{f^{(k)}(a)}{k!}(x-a)^k$ contributes to the partial sum. Mode shows $T_0 = f(a)$ (a horizontal line), then $T_1$ adds the tangent slope (linear approximation), $T_2$ adds the parabola correction, $T_3$ adds the cubic, and so on — each term highlights in a different color and its contribution is plotted alongside. You can clearly see the Taylor polynomial "wrap" further around $f$: $T_2$ matches function value + slope + curvature at $a$; $T_3$ matches up to the third derivative, and so on. By order $N$, $T_N$ matches all derivatives up to order $N$ at $a$ exactly.

Key takeaway: each term adds one more derivative-matched contribution at $a$; the polynomial gets better only near $a$.
🌍Applied Where do Taylor series get used in practice?

Almost everywhere a non-polynomial function meets a computer. CPUs compute $\sin, \cos, \exp, \log$ via low-order polynomial approximations (often Chebyshev-modified Taylor) — your hardware multiplies and adds, that's it. Physics: small-angle approximation $\sin\theta \approx \theta$ is $T_1$; pendulum equation linearization for SHM. Numerical methods: Newton's method's quadratic convergence comes from Taylor expansion. ODE solvers: Runge-Kutta methods are Taylor-series-matched at intermediate points. Machine learning: gradient descent uses $T_1$, Newton uses $T_2$ (the Hessian). Statistics: delta method approximates variance of $g(X)$ via $T_1$ around $\E[X]$. Quantum mechanics: time-evolution operator $e^{-iHt/\hbar}$ expanded in $t$.

Key takeaway: every computer's transcendental function is a Taylor-style polynomial; small-angle / linearization tricks in physics are $T_1$.
💡Non-Obvious Why does $1/(1-x)$ have radius of convergence 1, but no real singularity is at $x=\pm 1$ for $1/(1+x^2)$?

The radius of convergence is determined by the nearest singularity in the complex plane, not just the real line. $1/(1-x)$ has a real singularity at $x=1$ — distance 1 from origin, so $R=1$. $1/(1+x^2)$ has no real singularities, but factoring over $\C$: $1+x^2 = (1+ix)(1-ix)$ — singularities at $x=\pm i$, complex distance from 0 is exactly 1. So the Maclaurin series $1 - x^2 + x^4 - x^6 + \cdots$ converges only for $\abs{x}<1$. This is Carl Friedrich Gauss's deep insight: Taylor series "see" complex singularities even when computed only with real values. This is why $1/(1+x^2)$ misbehaves at $x=\pm 1$ even though $f$ is smooth there.

Key takeaway: radius of convergence = distance to nearest complex singularity. Real-line smoothness isn't enough.
📐Computational How many terms do I need for $\eps$-accuracy when computing $\sin(x)$?

Use the Lagrange bound: $\abs{R_N(x)} \le \dfrac{1}{(N+1)!}\abs{x}^{N+1}$ since $\abs{\sin^{(k)}}\le 1$. For $\sin(\pi/4)$: need $(\pi/4)^{N+1}/(N+1)! < \eps$. For $\eps = 10^{-6}$: $N=7$ suffices — and because $\sin$'s degree-8 term vanishes, $T_7 = T_8$, so the sharper bound is $(\pi/4)^9/9! \approx 3\times 10^{-7}$ (note $(\pi/4)^8/8! \approx 3.6\times 10^{-6}$ alone would not clear $10^{-6}$). For $\eps = 10^{-15}$ (machine precision): $N=15$. Practical CPUs use a smarter trick: range reduction (use $\sin(x+2\pi k) = \sin(x)$ to bring $x$ to $[-\pi/4, \pi/4]$), then a low-degree minimax polynomial — typically degree 7 or 11 — chosen by Remez algorithm to minimize maximum error rather than error at one point. So Taylor itself is rarely used in CPUs; its idea is.

Key takeaway: $N=7$ Taylor terms give $\sin$ to $10^{-6}$; CPUs use cleverer minimax polynomials of similar low degree.
🎓Deep / Advanced What's the connection between Taylor series and complex analysis?

It's profound. In real analysis, "smooth" (infinitely differentiable) functions can have Taylor series that don't converge, or converge to the wrong function ($e^{-1/x^2}$ is smooth at 0 with all derivatives = 0, but is nonzero elsewhere). In complex analysis, the situation is much cleaner: a function holomorphic on a disk is automatically equal to its Taylor series there. This is Cauchy's integral theorem + Cauchy's formula: $f^{(n)}(a) = \dfrac{n!}{2\pi i}\oint \dfrac{f(z)}{(z-a)^{n+1}}\,dz$. The radius of convergence is exactly the distance to the nearest singularity in $\C$. Functions that equal their Taylor series everywhere are called analytic (or "real-analytic" on $\R$). Holomorphic ⇒ analytic in $\C$, but not in $\R$ — that's why complex analysis is so much "nicer".

Key takeaway: in $\C$, holomorphic = analytic, automatically. In $\R$, smooth ≠ analytic. Complex analysis is where Taylor really lives.
🧮Conceptual Why does the Taylor polynomial only approximate well near $a$?

Because of the $(x-a)^{N+1}$ factor in the remainder: $\abs{R_N(x)} \le M\abs{x-a}^{N+1}/(N+1)!$. When $\abs{x-a}$ is small, this is tiny — even for low $N$. When $\abs{x-a}$ is moderate, you need large $N$ to overcome the $(x-a)^{N+1}$ factor. When $\abs{x-a}$ exceeds the radius of convergence, no $N$ helps: the remainder grows. Geometrically: $T_N$ matches all derivatives at $a$, so it agrees with $f$ "infinitely closely" at $a$ — but it has no information about $f$'s behavior far from $a$. The polynomial extrapolates based purely on what it sees near $a$, which is only locally meaningful.

Key takeaway: $(x-a)^{N+1}$ factor makes Taylor a local tool; for global approximation use Chebyshev or Fourier.
Best resource: 3Blue1Brown — "Taylor series" (Essence of Calculus, Ch. 11); Paul's Online Math Notes — "Taylor Series" (https://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcII/TaylorSeries.aspx); MIT OCW 18.01 — Single Variable Calculus, Lec 38–39; Better Explained — "Taylor Series"; Khan Academy — Calculus, Series & Taylor; Wolfram MathWorld — Taylor Series.

⚠️ Section 5 — Misconceptions & Common Errors

A · Conceptual Misconceptions
❌ Misconception: "If $f$ is infinitely differentiable, its Taylor series equals $f$." ✅ Correction: Not in general on $\R$. The classic counterexample is $f(x) = e^{-1/x^2}$ for $x\neq 0$ and $f(0)=0$. This $f$ is $C^\infty$ at 0 with $f^{(k)}(0) = 0$ for all $k$. So its Maclaurin series is identically zero — but $f \neq 0$ for $x\neq 0$. Thus the Taylor series converges (to 0) but to the wrong function. Functions that do equal their Taylor series locally are called real-analytic; this is a strictly smaller class than $C^\infty$. In complex analysis, holomorphic ⇒ analytic, no such pathology occurs. 📖 Reference: Spivak — Calculus, 4th ed., Ch. 24 (Cauchy's bump function counterexample).
❌ Misconception: "Higher order $N$ always gives better approximation." ✅ Correction: Only inside the radius of convergence. Outside $R$, increasing $N$ makes things worse — the partial sums diverge to $\pm\infty$. Example: $1/(1-x) = 1 + x + x^2 + \cdots$ for $\abs x < 1$. At $x=2$, $T_5 = 63$ but the true value is $-1$ — $T_N$ blows up to $+\infty$. Even inside $R$, increasing $N$ helps fast near $a$ but slowly near the boundary. 📖 Reference: Apostol — Calculus, Vol. 1, §10.7 (radius of convergence).
❌ Misconception: "The Taylor series of $f$ at $a$ depends only on $f$, not on $a$." ✅ Correction: Different expansion points give different series, even of the same function. $1/(1-x)$ at $a=0$ is $1+x+x^2+\cdots$ with $R=1$. At $a=2$: $1/(1-x) = 1/((1-2)-(x-2)) = -1/(1+(x-2)) = -1 + (x-2) - (x-2)^2 + (x-2)^3 - \cdots$ — different coefficients, different domain $\abs{x-2}<1$ (covering $1 📖 Reference: Stewart — Calculus, 8th ed., Ch. 11 §11.10 (different expansion points).
B · Common Procedural Errors
❌ Error: "Maclaurin series of $\sin(x)$: $T_3 = x - x^3 + x^5/2 - \cdots$" ✅ Correct: $T_3 = x - \dfrac{x^3}{3!} = x - \dfrac{x^3}{6}$. The factorials are critical: $3! = 6$, $5! = 120$, $7! = 5040$. The student dropped the factorials. Justifying rule: the $k$-th coefficient is $f^{(k)}(0)/k!$; the $k!$ is part of the Taylor formula by definition, and forgetting it causes the series to oscillate wildly instead of converging smoothly. 🔍 Why students do this: confuse the series of $\sin(x)$ ($x - x^3/6 + x^5/120 - \cdots$) with formal power series patterns where coefficients come "out of the blue" without factorials.
❌ Error: "Taylor series of $f(x) = e^x$ around $a=2$: $1 + (x-2) + (x-2)^2/2! + \cdots$" ✅ Correct: The coefficients are $f^{(k)}(a)/k! = e^a/k! = e^2/k!$, not $1/k!$. So $e^x = e^2 \big[1 + (x-2) + (x-2)^2/2! + (x-2)^3/3! + \cdots\big] = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \dfrac{e^2}{k!}(x-2)^k$. The $e^2$ factor is essential — it's the value of all derivatives at $a=2$. Justifying rule: $c_k = f^{(k)}(a)/k!$, and for $f=e^x$, $f^{(k)}(x) = e^x$ regardless of $k$, so $f^{(k)}(2) = e^2$. 🔍 Why students do this: memorize the Maclaurin series and forget that the coefficients evaluate at $a$, not at 0.
❌ Error: "$\ln(x) = x - x^2/2 + x^3/3 - \cdots$ for $\abs x<1$" ✅ Correct: That's the series for $\ln(1+x)$, not $\ln(x)$. $\ln(x)$ is undefined at $x=0$, so it has no Maclaurin series at all. The substitution $x \mapsto 1+x$ gives the standard form: $\ln(1+x) = x - \dfrac{x^2}{2} + \dfrac{x^3}{3} - \cdots = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \dfrac{(-1)^{k+1}x^k}{k}$ valid for $-1 < x \leq 1$. To expand $\ln(x)$ at $a=1$: $\ln(x) = (x-1) - (x-1)^2/2 + (x-1)^3/3 - \cdots$ for $0 < x \leq 2$. Justifying rule: Taylor series at $a$ is in powers of $(x-a)$, not $x$. 🔍 Why students do this: confuse "series of $\ln(1+x)$" (a Maclaurin series) with "series of $\ln(x)$" (must be centered elsewhere).
Education research: Martin, J. — "Differences between experts' and students' conceptual images of the mathematical structure of Taylor series convergence", Educational Studies in Mathematics 82(2), 267–283 (2013); Kidron, I. & Zehavi, N. — "The role of animation in teaching the limit concept", ZDM 34(5) (2002); Alcock, L. & Simpson, A. — "Convergence of sequences and series: Interactions between visual reasoning and the learner's beliefs", Educational Studies in Mathematics 58(1), 77–100 (2005); González-Martín, A., Nardi, E. & Biza, I. — "Conceptually-driven and visually-rich tasks in texts and teaching practice: the case of infinite series", IJMEST 42(5), 565–589 (2011).